mayrooni
User
 Senior Member
| Posts: 74 |   | Karma: 0
|
Re:grok asks moneyline question ... - 2006/08/02 06:54
bettor in the long run. Sometimes it`s unavoidable if you don`t have enough in the account to make a lot of plays, but I think as a general method it will lead to much less winnings than the bettor would prefer. Consider the following scenario: play. This means that they will bet $1.20 if their bankroll is $120, and $0.50 if they are down to $50. Given this strategy, we can then write a function for the size of their bankroll after each play. This function would look like: where z = +(B[n]/100) for X >= 0.49 and X is a uniform random variable from zero to one. So, just to show the first couple of bets ...: suppose the bettor wins (X=0.75), then on bet 2: now he loses (X=0.03), then: and then he wins ... etc etc etc. I wrote a program to simulate this bettor. What you will find is that if you had 10,000 of these bettors and you averaged their bankrolls after 10,000 bets you will get a result of around $750. If these 51% bettors were to, OTOH, always bet $1 each bet, you would expect them to have a bankroll of $5200 after 10,000 bets. Just something to keep in mind.
Popular posts by mayrooni Mar. 8: Grok Hockey Jagr and online gambling ... Bet to win or not to lose ...
|